Ilithi Dragon, on 16 June 2012 - 12:50 PM, said:
Shredhead, I think we might be running into a bit of problem of translation. You seem to be missing some of the nuances of what Catamount and I are saying, and you are using some words that don't seem to quite fit with the context, which is probably causing confusion on both sides (though I have to give you huge props for knowing a second language well enough to engage in a discussion of this level, as I failed my second year of Spanish (correspondence courses suck)).
Thanks. Now that I am aware of it, I'll try to be more careful.
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First of all, the Scientific Method does exist in Germany, it is a specific process or method that was developed in the 17th Century, and all Science is done using the Scientific Method. Prior to the 17th Century, Science was not done. There were alternative methods of reasoning and deduction, many of which formed the foundations of the Scientific Method, but they were not Science.
The Scientific Method (with capital letters) is a formal process for deduction that goes as follows:
1. Formulate a Question about an Observation
2. Formulate a Hypothesis to explain the Observation
3. Formulate a Prediction based on the Hypothesis
4. Test the Prediction to see if it holds true (or, more appropriately, try to prove the prediction false)
5. Analyze the Result of the Test, and how the Observation of the Result compares to the Hypothesis and the original Observation
6. Repeat
Modern Science also includes the Peer Review process, where the Results are presented to other experts for review and testing, and if found to be sound and proper and not flawed or erroneous, are published in peer-reviewed journals. After sufficient Tests and Peer-Review, and also the Repetition of the Result by others, a Hypothesis can then become a Theory.
THAT is the Scientific Method, and prior to the 17th Century, it did not exist. Prior to the 17th Century, technologies were developed using other methods of deduction, but they were not developed using Science. As such, Science is not required to develop technology (though it is the best method for doing so, because it's the best method of deduction we have yet developed), and so magic developed without Science can be technology.
I know what you mean with it, but even in the english wikipedia I can't find evidence of what you are saying. I'm quoting:
-Scientific methodology has been practiced in some form for at least one thousand years[4] and is the process by which science is carried out.- Source:
http://en.wikipedia....ientific_method
also:
-An Egyptian medical textbook, the Edwin Smith papyrus, (circa 1600 BC), applies the following components: examination, diagnosis, treatment and prognosis, to the treatment of disease,[2] which display strong parallels to the basic empirical method of science and according to G. E. R. Lloyd[3] played a significant role in the development of this methodology. The Ebers papyrus (circa 1550 BC) also contains evidence of traditional empiricism.- Source:
http://en.wikipedia....ientific_method
It doesn't matter what you call it, scientific methodologies are thousands of years old, todays "Scientific Method" bases on these old methodologies. It was a process of refinement, taking the methodologies and shaping them to fit the ever changing requirements as science evolved into the Scientific Method that is taught today.
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I do not understand what you mean here. I made a snipped quote referencing you and your argument, and they you complained of 'cripplequoting'.
I've written:
Magic =/= Technology (I know " Any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic." A.C. Clarke, but it doesn't fit the other way round!)
You quoted me like that:
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" Any sufficiently advanced technology is indistinguishable from magic." A.C. Clarke
Magic is just another form of technology, in stories often involving mystical incantations and forces and energies that don't exist in the real world, but it is just another form of technology, and if you took your house and its contents and a generator back to 908 CE, you'd be a high wizard.
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But, as I originally stated, A.C. Clarke's sentence doesn't work the other way around, and you just ignored that statement somehow.
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I'm wondering if the MWO forum's placement of the faction icon in the place of the traditional poster avatar may be contributing to some of the confusion, since I know I usually rely on forum avatars to differentiate posters much more than forum names, and the odd way that MWO does things has thrown me off quite a bit at times.
Maybe I mixed statements of you two up, could be possible.
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Again, though, you're still missing my point. I'm not arguing the definition of futuristic, I'm pointing out that you were using different standards of definition for what could be classified as futuristic than you were using for what could be classified as technology.
When defining what could be classified as technology, you required that magic meet all the listed definitions of technology, otherwise it could not be classified as technology.
When defining what could be classified as futuristic, you required that Star Wars meet only one of the listed definitions of futuristic in order to be classified as such.
This is a double-standard. Either something has to meet all definitions to fit a classification, or it doesn't. You can't use both whenever it best suites your argument.
So, either magic only has to meet one of the definitions of technology, and as such is a form of technology, or Star Wars has to meet all the definitions of futuristic, and as such is not futuristic. One or the other, you can't have both.
But I only stated that magic doesn't meet the criterium of scientific explainability. Of course it meets most of the other parts of the definition, as it is akin to technology. It fills the same gap. It still
isn't technology.
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I never claimed that Dr. Brin was infallible, I noted that he is an expert on the subject of what Science Fiction is, as he is an acclaimed Science Fiction writer. That makes him a qualified expert to speak on the nature of what Science Fiction is, and we referenced him as such. If you think he is just spinning BS on the subject, that's your opinion, but his qualified expert testimony on the subject outweighs your personal opinion. If you want to render his argument invalid, you must demonstrate why it is invalid, or demonstrate that he is not a reliable expert. Simply stating that you think he is spinning BS to pad his ego is not sufficient to do that, it's just stating your own, unfounded opinion, and is an ad hominem attack, which is a logically invalid argument.
That may be as it is, so to make it a bit more clear: Dr. Brin is a Doctor graduated in Astrophysics (I've got a friend who made Doctor in Astrophysics this February, working in Jena right now, nice coincidence). He is also a writer of "Hard" Sci Fi. But the genres in literature aren't defined by authors, but by literary scholars and the publishers. His try to dismiss "Soft" SF as Fantasy and therefor no "real" Science Fiction smacks of elitism, as even "Hard" SF can only fantasize about future developments. Writing a book doesn't make him an expert in literature, as growing some plants don't make me a gardener.
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No, I am not wrong. It was not called Science back then because Science did not exist as a method of deduction back then. As previously noted, there were other methods of deduction back then, many of which later formed the basis for the Scientific Method, but those methods were not themselves Science.
"Science" is not a method of deduction, it is:
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You see, even Aristoteles called it science back then.
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Logic is a broad subject covering valid and deductive reasoning. There are many forms/types/topics of logic, what you call them is semantics.
Yupp.